When Does A Run Score On A Double Play?
Mark published on January 15, 1970Mike and I had an interesting time at the Yankees game yesterday. It was a seesaw game but we were both happy where it ended up. I have a question about one play that I was hoping someone could clarify for me. In the fourth inning with one out, the bases were loaded with Giambi on first, Abreu on second and Jeter on third. Nady hit a fly to left field that was caught. The runners on second and third tagged and ran to third and home respectively. I thought Jeter crossed home plate before Abreu was tagged out at third but the run was not counted. Mike had a recollection that in a one out situation, the run never scores if there is a double play. My recollection is that the second out has to be a force play and if it is not a force play, the run should be scored if the runner crosses the plate before the third out occurs. My theory is that the Yankees should have scores a run in the fourth because Abreu was not forced at third (he could have remained on second). Can anyone help us out here?
Comments
I was wrong on the facts
Mark published on August 4, 2008According to Newsday (http://www.newsday.com/sports/ny-spyanks080408,0,6812046.story), Abreu was out before Jeter scored:
It sounds very exciting!
Therese published on August 5, 2008I think I saw that play on the news.
yes. i just saw this now.
Dan published on August 6, 2008yes. i just saw this now. and it makes my previous comment unnecessary!
Umpires ruled Abreu was tagged before Jeter crossed home plate
Dan published on August 6, 2008"My recollection is that the second out has to be a force play and if it is not a force play, the run should be scored if the runner crosses the plate before the third out occurs." This is correct, but they umpires said the tag occurred before Jeter touched home plate, so the run did not score.